In the KJV it says “abusers of themselves with mankind”. So many people try to throw this out as meaning homosexuality, please research your sources before you go proclaiming translations as something they are not. This is one of the only translations that actually gets it remotely correct on 1 Corinthians 6:9-10. The ancient Greek term is hard to find in Greek literature, but when it has been used it is used as a class struggle, where a person in a HIGHER POSITION abuses someone in a LOWER position. Also, the term has another more known meaning in shrine prostitution. Where a male would castrate themselves and be on the receiving end of sex unto a false god, such as Molech (which I have mentioned before).
Philo, The Special Laws, III, VII, 40-41: “(40) And I imagine that the cause of this is that among many nations there are actually rewards given for intemperance and effeminacy. At all events one may see men-women (androgynes) continually strutting through the market place at midday, and leading the processions in festivals; and, impious men as they are, having received by lot the charge of the temple, and beginning the sacred and initiating rites, and concerned even in the holy mysteries of Ceres(Cybele)”
This indicates they were in charge of the Temple unto Cybele. This was part of the term (which cannot be separated). Reguarding the first definition(abuse of someone lower than you), which is stated above, only a few ancient Greek texts use it in such a way (Sibylline Oracle 2.70-77.10 – one of the more ancient texts that uses the term).
Section “On Justice” from Sibylline Oracle 2: “(Never accept in your hand a gift which derives from unjust deeds.) Do not steal seeds. Whoever takes for himself is accursed (to generations of generations, to the scattering of life. Do not arsenokoitein, do not betray information, do not murder.) Give one who has labored his wage. Do not oppress a poor man. Take heed of your speech. Keep a secret matter in your heart. (Make provision for orphans and widows and those in need.) Do not be willing to act unjustly, and therefore do not give leave to one who is acting unjustly.”
This would qualify “slave owners” from the 19th Century, due to how they abused slaves. “Abusers of themselves with mankind” WERE slave owners!!!
NOW DAYS, we are expected to believe and many do, that it is referring to homosexuals. (=ignorance/hate/lies/false doctrine) This is dishonest and causing so much hate in our country alone, not to mention the other countries. Just how the devil wants it, people have allowed it to be.
The only definition that is related to “homosexuality” is one that also includes “false god worship” as part of the definition. First, NO homosexuals castrate themselves. Second, they are not worshipping false gods such as Cybele or Molach while having sex! Lord knows I don’t!
The sin was idolatry, mixed with sex acts. This is what has been lost in its meaning. So “slave owners” and those who rape and abuse others are ALSO being discussed when this term is used. I am guessing Paul was referring to both meanings when he spoke of this, but he by no means was talking about homosexuals.